Consider a Hull-White model
$dr(t)=\left(\theta(t)-a(t) r(t)\right) dt + \sigma dW(t)$
with parameters
- $a=0.1$
- $\sigma=0.3$
- $\theta(t)$ was calibrated to match
- $P(0,t)=\exp(-\mu t)$
- with: $\mu=0.2$
At time $t=0$ the forward discount factor is:
$P(0,t,T) = \exp (-\mu (T-t))$
For example $P(0,5,10)=\exp(-0.2\times (10-5))\approx 0.37$
I can calculate this discount factor also in HW model (the discount factor will depend on the observed rate $r(t)$) at time $t=5$ with the formula:
$P(t,T)=\exp\left(A(t,T)-B(t,T) r(t)\right)$
If I do so (with $t=5$ and $T=10$ below), I get:
- $\mathbb{E}\ r(5)=0.9$
- $A(5,10)=-2.4$
- $B(5,10)=3.9$
- $P(t,T)=\exp(-2.4 - 3.9 \times 0.9)=0.003$
Now I ask myself: is this result correct? The discount factor between $t=5$ and $T=10$ was diminished from $0.36$ to $0.003$! Of course I do not have very realistic numbers (if $t$ is in years, then at $t=5$ the interest rate is 90% per year), but maybe I misunderstand how to use the formulas?!
Thanks a lot in advance!