I googled and I am unable to find any formular . Can some one give me the formula to calculate IVP , based on sets of IV's given.


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    $\begingroup$ Does this help? "The IV percentile is a metric in the thinkorswim trading platform that compares the current implied volatility (IV) to its 52-week high and low values. Those range from zero, when the current IV is at its 52-week low, to 100%, when the current IV is at its 52-week high". So the formula is $100*\frac{IV-IVMIN52}{IVMAX52-IVMIN52}$ $\endgroup$ – noob2 Mar 6 '20 at 19:57
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    $\begingroup$ Is the excel percentile rank function explained here an option?: support.office.com/en-gb/article/… $\endgroup$ – Magic is in the chain Mar 6 '20 at 23:02
  • $\begingroup$ @noob2 : you are referring to IV rank , not IV percent $\endgroup$ – Gracie williams Mar 7 '20 at 5:59
  • $\begingroup$ @Magicisinthechain : Yes, but I dont not see any formulat $\endgroup$ – Gracie williams Mar 7 '20 at 6:00

As volatility has a great influence on option prices, you'd like to sell options in high volatility environments and purchase options in moments of low volatility. But what is high/low volatility? Implied volatility rank (IVR) and implied volatility percentile (IVP) tell you this.

The implied volatility rank is given by $$IVR=\frac{IV-52Low}{52High-52Low},$$ where we refer to the 52 week maximum/minimum of implied volatility.

The implied volatility percentile is given by $$IVP=\frac{\#Days \; with\; lower \; IV \; than \;today}{\#Trading \; Days \; in \; a \; year}.$$

So, $IVR$ compares the current $IV$ to its historical maximum and minimum whereas $IVP$ tells you how many days in the last year had a lower $IV$ than today.

Clearly, both $IVR$ and $IVP$ take numbers between $0$ and $1$ (whereas $IV$ may take any positive number). Normally, $IVR<IVP$. The higher either of the measures are, the higher volatility is at the moment. $IVR$ occurs to be more popular yet is more affected by outliers as it only considers the maximum and minimum. You can use both but your trading decisions ought to be consistent. So, don't purchase an option because of $IVP$ and sell one based on $IVR$.


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