0
$\begingroup$

Let $B(t,T)$ denote the cost at time t of a risk-free 1 euro bond, at time T. Assume that the interest rate is a deterministic function. Show that the absence of arbitrage requires that:

$ B(0,1) B(1,2) = B(0,2)$

For instance, could you give a detailed explanation of what to do if $B(0,1)B(1,2) > B(0,2)$ ?

Improve this question
$\endgroup$
7
  • $\begingroup$ What have you tried to solve this problem? $\endgroup$ – Bob Jansen♦ Mar 31 '20 at 13:35
  • $\begingroup$ I have to suppose two cases: $B(0,1)B(1,2) >B(0,2) $ and $B(0,1)B(1,2) <B(0,2) $ and show that both lead to an arbitrage $\endgroup$ – Babado Mar 31 '20 at 13:37
  • $\begingroup$ As usual, to make a profit you sell the thing(s) which is most expensive and buy the thing(s) which is cheaper. $\endgroup$ – noob2 Mar 31 '20 at 15:38
  • $\begingroup$ Yeah ok, but I don't understand in real life, what does it mean for example to sell $B(0,1)B(1,2) $ and buy $B(0,2)$ $\endgroup$ – Babado Mar 31 '20 at 16:03
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Try thinking of borrowing money instead of selling a bond and of lending money instead of buying a bond $\endgroup$ – simzoor Mar 31 '20 at 16:08

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.