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While reading How does implied volatility affect option pricing by Investopedia, it states the following in key takeaways

  • When options markets experience a downtrend, implied volatility generally increases.

  • Implied volatility falls when the options market shows an upward trend.

  • Higher implied volatility means a greater option price movement can be expected.

I fail to understand the reasoning behind the statements above. Can anyone explain?

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It is poorly worded. Replace "options markets" with "stock markets" and it becomes clear that they're just noting typical spot vol correlation. When stock markets trade up volatility tends to fall and when stock markets trade down volatility tends to rise. This has been the case, on average, historically. For more on why, see here: Why does implied volatility show an inverse relation with strike price when examining option chains?

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