In general, call/put options are quoted with respect to their Black-Scholes volatility.
In the FX market we define the risk reversal volatility as $$\sigma_{25-RR} = \sigma_{25-Call} - \sigma_{25-Put}$$ Question : is this the value to input in a Black-Scholes formula to get the price of a risk reversal option ? More precisely is any one of these equations holds ? $$ PriceOfRR = CallBSPrice(\sigma_{25-RR})$$ or $$ PriceOfRR = PutBSPrice(\sigma_{25-RR})$$
I am kind of confused because this does not seem to be correct since a flat BS volatility cannot price a risk reversal all the time since we would need atleast two points from the volatility smile in order to have a correct price, and even in the case where the previous equations have a solution there is no need that the solution have to be the difference between the implied volatility of the call and the put, it could be anything and only be found numerically.
If not, does anyone know how this volatility $\sigma_{25-RR}$ is computed in FX market by the market maker ? as it is and important input to establish the market volatility surface.
Thanks!