If I buy a $1 30 year bond with 4% coupon payment, would my cash flow be:
$$ V^{30}(t) = \frac{$1 \times0.04}{1 + R(t, 1)} + \frac{$1 \times0.04}{1 + R(t, 2)} + \cdots + \frac{$1 + $1 \times0.04}{1 + R(t, 30)} $$
or would it be:
$$ V^{30}(t) = \frac{$1 \times0.04}{1 + R(t, 30)} + \frac{$1 \times0.04}{1 + R(t, 30)} + \cdots + \frac{$1 + $1 \times0.04}{1 + R(t, 30)} $$
where $R(t, \theta)$ is the spot rate at $t$ over $\theta$. Sometimes people write $\theta = T-t$ where $T$ is the maturity date.