Based on notations in this question, assuming the market value recovery mechanism, the pre-default value at time $T_1$ of a zero-coupon bond with maturity $T_2$, where $T_1 < T_2$, is given by
\begin{align*}
P(T_1, T_2) = E\Big(e^{-\int_{T_1}^{T_2}(r_s +(1-R)h_s)ds}\,\big|\, \mathscr{F}_{T_1}\Big).
\end{align*}
Let $B_t=e^{\int_0^t r_s ds}$ be the credit risk free money-market account value at time $t$. The pre-default forward price $K$ determined at time $t$, for $0\le t \le T_1$, is a value such that
\begin{align*}
0 &= E\Big(\pmb{1}_{\tau>T_1}\frac{B_t}{B_{T_1}}(K-P(T_1, T_2)) \,|\,\mathscr{G}_t\Big)\\
&=\pmb{1}_{\tau>t}E\left(\Big(K e^{-\int_t^{T_1}(r_s+h_s) ds} - e^{-\int_t^{T_1}(r_s+h_s) ds-\int_{T_1}^{T_2}(r_s +(1-R)h_s)ds} \Big) \,|\,\mathscr{F}_t\right)\\
&=\pmb{1}_{\tau>t}E\left(\Big(K e^{-\int_t^{T_1}(r_s+h_s) ds} - e^{-\int_t^{T_2}(r_s+h_s) ds+\int_{T_1}^{T_2}Rh_sds} \Big) \,|\,\mathscr{F}_t\right).
\end{align*}
That is,
\begin{align*}
K = \frac{E\Big(e^{-\int_t^{T_2}(r_s+h_s) ds+\int_{T_1}^{T_2}Rh_sds} \,|\,\mathscr{F}_t\Big)}{E\Big(e^{-\int_t^{T_1}(r_s+h_s) ds} \,|\,\mathscr{F}_t\Big)}.
\end{align*}
Your observation appears correct if you assume that the interest rate is defined by $r_t+h_t$ in the standard case.