If you have a covariance matrix, $Q$ the VaR is a measure of the standard deviation of the portfolio,
ie. $$VaR, V \propto \sqrt{S^T Q S}$$
and,
$$ \frac{\partial V}{\partial S} = \frac{QS}{V} $$
Suppose you had 3 assets, with large positions in the first two assets, and small position in the third, AND that the first two were perfectly negatively correlated, ie.
$$ Q = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & -1 & 0\\ -1 & 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix} $$
$$ S = \begin{bmatrix} 100 \\ 100 \\ 1\end{bmatrix} $$
Then your VaR from the formula above is 1, and intuitively you can allocate it completely to the third instrument.
If you use an inclusion exclusion method your VaR will be completely different.
However, the derivative:
$$ \frac{\partial V}{\partial S} = \begin{bmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{bmatrix} $$
which gives the intuitive proportional expected allocation. I believe this is the equivalent to an Aumann-Shapley allocation principle.
** Edit **
This approach does not necessarily help with the OP question where only specific information is available, i.e. historical PnL vector of portfolio, which of course contains no information at all with which to allocate VaR to sub positions, and then the specific PnLs of all individual instruments on the worst 10 days.
I suspect you may be able to hypothesis some form of allocation procedure from this information but given it is a sample of only 10 days worth of data it will be subject to large variance (uncertainty) and therefore not necessarily useful/reliable.