- Is it more optimal to have a portfolio whose assets are negatively correlated? (I am not requiring all assets to be negatively correlated in this case, nor (-1) perfectly negative correlation either. I just mean moderately negative $\rho$ values, with little to no zero or positive correlations)
- and is it more realistic, or smarter than the previous, to construct a portfolio whose majority of assets have a correlation of 0?
Why, and how to reconcile the answers to the above two?