When looking at Callable Bonds, I've noticed that we often have a call price of 100 with a call date a few month before expiry. For example:
US09681MAS70
: coupon2.625%
, expiry2030-09-17
, callable from2030-06-17
for$100.0
FR0013509627
: coupon2.000%
, expiry2024-10-24
, callable from2024-07-24
for€100.0
It seems one implication of this is that the bond holder will never actually receive 100 + coupon
on expiry, as the issuer will always call the bond for 100
before that. Or in other words, the final coupon is effectively 0?
Questions:
- Why are callable bonds (often) structured like this? Why not set the final call price to
100 + coupon
? Or simply shorten the bond by one payment period (as we are skipping the final coupon anyway)? - If the (dirty) price of
FR0013509627
is106.30
with quoted yield0.65%
, then this yield calculation (via Street Convention) assumes no callable features (i.e. the yield calculation assumes the final coupon gets paid). Doesn't this mean the quoted yield is misleading? Since the bond will never actually pay the final coupon, shouldn't the effective yield be lower? E.g. somewhere around0.15%
?