The price of an American put option can be written as the following optimal stopping problem: $V(0) = \mathop {\sup }\limits_{\tau \in \mathcal{T}} {\mathbb{E}^\mathbb{Q}}\left[ {{e^{ - r\tau }}\max [K - S(\tau ),0]} \right]$, where $\mathcal{T}$ is the set of all stopping (exercise) times. Assume no-dividend case.
If I look at ${\mathbb{E}^\mathbb{Q}}\left[ {{e^{ - r\tau }}\max [K - S(\tau ),0]} \right]$, then this is a price of a Black-Scholes European option maturing at $\tau$.
To solve the American option pricing problem using a common sense logic - why can't I just compute Black-Scholes price for each $\tau$-maturity option and then take a maximum price?