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If an underlying follows lognormal GM with no drift $dS_t = \sigma S_t dW_t $ and $A_N = \Sigma_{i=1}^{N} S_{t_i}$. How to compute variance of $A_N$?

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  • $\begingroup$ Are the brownian motions correlated? $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 5, 2021 at 12:22

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We have $S_t = \sigma S_tdW_t$ and $A_N = \sum_{n=1}^N S_n = S_0\sum_{n=1}^N e^{\sigma W_n-\frac12\sigma^2n}.$

$$\mathbb E[A_N] = S_0\sum_{n=1}^N \mathbb E[e^{\sigma W_n-\frac12\sigma^2n}] = NS_0.$$

$$\mathbb E[A_N^2] = S_0^2\Big(\sum_{n=1}^N\mathbb E[e^{2\sigma W_n-\frac12(2\sigma)^2n+\frac14(2\sigma)^2n}] + 2\sum_{n=1}^{N-1}\sum_{m=n+1}^N\mathbb E[e^{\sigma W_n-\frac12\sigma^2n}e^{\sigma W_m-\frac12\sigma^2m}]\Big) = S_0^2\Big(\sum_{n=1}^Ne^{n\sigma^2}+2\sum_{n=1}^{N-1}\sum_{m=n+1}^Ne^{-\frac12\sigma^2(n+m)}\mathbb E[e^{2\sigma W_n}]\mathbb E[e^{\sigma(W_m-W_n)}]\Big) = S_0^2\Big(\sum_{n=1}^Ne^{n\sigma^2}+2\sum_{n=1}^{N-1}\sum_{m=n+1}^Ne^{-\frac12\sigma^2(n+m)}e^{2\sigma^2n}e^{\frac12\sigma^2(m-n)}\Big) = S_0^2\Big(\sum_{n=1}^Ne^{n\sigma^2}\big(1+2(N-n)\big)\Big).$$ $$Var(A_N) = \mathbb E[A_N^2] - \mathbb E[A_N]^2 = S_0^2\bigg[\Big(\sum_{n=1}^Ne^{n\sigma^2}\big(1+2(N-n)\big)\Big)-N^2\bigg]$$

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  • $\begingroup$ That is correct as long as $W_n$ and $W_m$ are independent. Your notation may be confusing: $W_m - W_n$ is not a Brownian motion increment. It is a difference of two, possibly correlated, brownian motions. To clear up notation we should maybe use $W^m_t - W^n_t$. Now, if the two are correlated and jointly normal, then they are normally distributed. However, the variance will have to be increased taking into account the correlation effect. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 7, 2021 at 7:07
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    $\begingroup$ No! In my solution, $W_m-W_n$ is the increment and, from what I understand, given the "asian-option" tag, there is only one Brownian motion. However, the question isn't clear as it's written (a sum over $k$ but then there is $S_i$...) and I might have misinterpreted it. $\endgroup$
    – LucaMac
    Commented Jun 7, 2021 at 13:15
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks for your reply, LucaMac. Sorry for the confusion. There is one Brownian motion involved indeed. I have edited my question. $\endgroup$
    – Toby1729
    Commented Jun 8, 2021 at 10:56

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