I asked a question some days back and got an answer which I understand and make sense: Probability of touching short call strike and not touching touching short put strike of a short strangle?
However, the answer to that question brought up another related question to my mind.
With the probability of that event happening given as P(A ∩ Bcomplement)=P(A)−P(A∩B):
Is that the probability for the event with or without time still left to expiration?
Or the probability of the event only without time left in the trade?
NOTE: Because if there is still time in the trade, it can still touch B before the trade expires even though it touched A first and satisfied the condition