In constructing a GARCH(1,1) model over a time length $\delta$, I am considering the following procedure. The purpose of this procedure is to give more training (calibrating) samples than non-overlapping consecutive samples. \begin{align} \nu(k\delta,(k+1)\delta) &= \omega+\alpha r((k-1)\delta,k\delta)^2+\beta \nu((k-1)\delta,k\delta) \\ \nu\big((k+0.5)\delta,(k+1.5)\delta\big) &= \omega+\alpha\,r\big((k-0.5)\delta,(k+0.5)\delta\big)^2+\beta\,\nu\big((k-0.5)\delta,(k+0.5)\delta\big) \end{align} for $k\in \bf \bar{Z^-}$, where $\nu(s,t)$ stands for the variance between time $s$ and $t$, $r(s,t)$ the return between $s$ and $t$. I calibrate the parameter tuple $(\omega, \alpha, \beta)$ simultaneously with the above equations for overlapping time intervals.
I use the following method to estimate the parameters. Define $\displaystyle l(k):=\ln v(k\delta,(k+1)\delta)+\frac{r(k\delta,(k+1)\delta)^2}{v(k\delta,(k+1)\delta))}$ and $$-2\,\text{Log-Likelihood}=(k_1+k_2)\ln(2\pi)+\sum_{k}l(k)+\sum_{k}l(k-0.5)$$ where $k_1$ and $k_2$ are the numbers of intervals in the two non-overlapping sequences of intervals. This function $-2\,\text{Log-Likelihood}$ is then minimized for over $(\omega,\alpha,\beta)$.
Is this legitimate?