When I look at Hull's "Options Futures and Other Derivatives" the process for $F_k(t)$ in the rolling forward risk neutral world is specified as
$\frac{dF_k(t)}{F_k(t)} = \sum^k_{i=m(t)}\frac{\delta_iF_i(t)\zeta_i(t)\zeta_k(t)}{1+\delta_iF_i(t)}dt + \zeta_k(t)dz$
where
- $F_k(t)$ is the forward rate between times $t_k$ and $t_{k+1}$
- $\zeta_k$ is the volatility of $F_k(t)$ at time t (the instantaneous volatility)
- $\delta_k$ is the compounding period between $t_k$ and $t_{k+1}$
- $m(t)$ is the index for the next reset date at time $t$
In Brigo and Mercurio's Interest Rate Models - Theory and Practice, the Lognormal Forward LIBOR Model spot-measure dynamics are specified as:
$dF_k(t) = \sigma_k(t)F_k(t)\sum^k_{j=\beta(t)}\frac{\tau_j\rho_{j,k}\sigma_j(t)F_j{t}}{1+\tau_jF_k(t)}dt + \sigma_k(t)F_k(t)dZ^d_k(t)$
which becomes
$\frac{dF_k(t)}{F_k(t)} = \sigma_k(t)\sum^k_{j=\beta(t)}\frac{\tau_j\rho_{j,k}\sigma_j(t)F_j{t}}{1+\tau_jF_k(t)}dt + \sigma_k(t)dZ^d_k(t)$
where
- $\sigma_k(t)$ is the instantaneous volatility of $F_k(t)$
- $\tau_k$ is the compounding period between $t_k$ and $t_{k+1}$
- $\beta(t)$ is the index for the next forward rate that has not expired
- $\rho_{i,j}$ is the instantaneous correlation between two forward rates $F_i(t)$ and $F_j(t)$
The only difference I can see is that Brigo and Mercurio include the correlation $\rho_{j,k}$.
How do I reconcile this difference? Does Hull make an assumption that the forward rates are not correlated?