I'm currently looking at the Hull-White model reproduced below:
$$\mathrm{d}r = \lambda(\theta(t)-r)\mathrm{d}t + \sigma\mathrm{d}W(t)\text{.}\tag{1}$$
I have a simplistic understanding of the model. My understanding is that $\theta(t)$ is a long term "mean-interest rate function" that $r$ tends towards. My thinking is that $\theta(t)$ can be anything. I see two motivations that could help you choose $\theta$.
a. You may choose $\theta$ based on what you think the market is going to do. I could, for example, base my beliefs about $\theta(t)$ on what I think the U.S. Federal Reserve is going to do. If I think the Fed will target a lower short rate in the near future, but will increase this target in several years, then I may choose a $\theta$ based on that. My beliefs may differ from the current term structure. Is this pure speculation, or is this kind of reasoning relevant for hedging?
b. You may choose $\theta$ with the goal of "hedging." In this case, you will calculate $\theta$ from the current term structure of interest rates.
That leaves me with several question, the most important of which is (3):
- Is (a) above ever used in practice? If yes, is (a) above relevant for hedging?
- How is (b) above relevant for hedging?
- Do I expect the current term structure of interest rates to causally modulate future short-rates? Not just that it matches expectations or market prices, but will, at time $t_i$, there be market forces that push $r$ towards $\theta(t_i)$? To put it another way, why should future short rates tend towards the current term structure of interest rates?
Edit: $\theta$ represents current expectations of future short rates based on the market. You will adjust your hedge at time $t$ based on the price of the underlying (and $v$ and $r$) at time $t$. The short rate at time $t$ may be different from $\theta(t)$. So it seems to me that what is more important for hedging is what the hedger's expectation of what the short rate will be rather than what the market thinks what the short rate will be.