In chapter 4 of Natenberg's "Option and Volatility and pricing", he discusses how to draw parity graphs for option positions. These are defined as a plot of the intrinsic value of the position against the price of the underlying at expiration.
One of the examples given involves a position of long 2 calls and short one underlying in the image below.
However, why isn't the parity graph be shifted down? If $x$ is the underlying price at expiry and $K$ is the strike price of the call, wouldn't the intrinsic value at maturity be following? The graph given looks like the graph of a regular straddle of long one call and short one put rather than long 2 calls and short one underlying. $$f(x) =2(x-K)^{+}-x= \begin{cases}x-2K &\quad x\geq K\\ -x & \quad x < K\end{cases}$$