Let $n \geq 2$, and consider a tenor discretization: $0 = T_{0} < T_{1} < ... < T_{n}$ and associated forward rates evaluated at time $t$, as $L_{i}(t):=L(T_{i},T_{i+1};t)$ for any $i = 0,...,n-1$.
Furthermore we assume lognormal dynamics under the measure $\mathbb P$,
$$ dL_{i}(t)=L_{i}(t)(\mu_{i}^{\mathbb P}(t)dt +\sigma_{i}(t)dW_{i}(t)),$$
Where $W_{i}$ is a Brownian motion, and furthermore, we have the following correlation structure:
$dW_{i}(t)dW_{j}(t)=\rho_{ij}dt$.
We define the following money market account $M$ that takes on two arguments $T_{i} < T_{j}$:
$M(T_{i}, T_{j})=\frac{1}{T_{j}-T_{i}}\left(\prod\limits_{k=i}^{j-1}\left(1+L_{k}(T_{k})(T_{k+1}-T_{k})\right)-1\right)\; (*)$
Question:
Given strike $K>0$, how can I value to the following caplet-type product:
It pays $\max(M(T_{i},T_{j})-K,0)$ at time $T_{j}$?
My thoughts:
If we were in the Black model and only evaluating the caplet that pays $\max(L(T_{i},T_{j};T_{i})-K,0)$ at time $T_{j}$, it would simply be a case of taking the "terminal" measure $\mathbb Q^{P(T_{j})}$, and using the black formula:
$\text{Black}_{\text{caplet},i,j}(P(T_{j};0),K,L(T_{i},T_{j};0),\sigma_{i})$
I am unsure how to do the same for $(*)$. Any ideas?