Good afternoon!
Since you did not specify the measure of risk, I will asume that it's standard deviation of return. So for the portfolio 50/50 ($w_A$ - weight of asset A, $w_B$ - weight of asset B, $\sigma$ - standard deviation, $Var$ - variance, $r$ - return, $r_p$ - portfolio return):
$$
corr(r_A, r_B) = \frac{cov(r_A, r_B)}{\sqrt{Var(r_A) Var(r_B)}} \\[20pt]
\Leftrightarrow cov(r_A, r_B) = corr(r_A, r_B) \sqrt{Var(r_A) Var(r_B)} = \\[14pt]
= corr(r_A, r_B) \sigma_A \sigma_B\\[14pt]
E(r_p) = w_A E(r_A) + w_B E(r_B) = \mathbf{16\%} \\[8pt]
\sigma(r_p) = \sqrt{Var[w_A E(r_a) + w_B E(r_B)]} \\[8pt]
Var[w_A E(r_a) + w_B E(r_B)] = w_A^2 Var(r_A) + w_B^2 Var(r_B) + 2 w_A w_B cov(r_A, r_B) = \\[8pt]
= 0.25 \times 0.01 + 0.25 \times 0.0324 + 2 \times 0.5 \times 0.5 \times 0.15 \times 0.1 \times 0.18 = 0.01195 \\[8pt]
\Leftrightarrow \sigma_p = \sqrt{Var[r_p]} = \sqrt{0.01195} = \mathbf{10.93\%}
$$
About the intuition: since there is little correlation between two assets, we can exploit some benefits from diversification, with portfolio that obtains higher expected returns, than asset $A$ itself, but with risk close to risk of $A$. Now you can plug in different weights in the formula and calculate what happens when weights change. Hint: shifting weights towards less risky asset $A$ shall both decrease expected portfolio risk and return. Expected return will be 14%, standard deviation 9.31%.