In the following practice problem:
Is the futures price of a stock index greater than or less than the expected future value of the index? Explain your answer.
The answer given is as follows:
The futures price of a stock index is always less than the expected future value of the index. This follows from Section 5.14 and the fact that the index has positive systematic risk. For an alternative argument, let $\mu$ be the expected return required by investors on the index so that $E(S_T) = S_0e^{(\mu-q)T}$. Because $\mu > r$ and $F_0 = S_0e^{(r-q)T}$, it follows that $E(S_T) > F_0$.
Is the reason that $\mu > r$ because by definition $r$ is the rate of return least risky investment, and therefore to entice investors to invest in something more risky (a stock index), $u$ must be strictly greater? Why can't it be the case that $\mu = r$ (a hypothetical "risk-free index"), or even in the case of a bear market, $\mu < r$? I feel like I'm thinking about this wrong.