It is very difficult to source a rigorous answer to the above question.
I know the answer is:
Ann. Covariance = covariance * frequency
Can anyone explain the mathematical idea behind this formula?
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Sign up to join this communityIt is very difficult to source a rigorous answer to the above question.
I know the answer is:
Ann. Covariance = covariance * frequency
Can anyone explain the mathematical idea behind this formula?
This is a consequence of the covariance of linear combinations of random variables which are uncorrelated with respect to time.
See wikipedia: $$\text{cov}(aX+bY,cW+dV)=ac\,\text{cov}(X,W)+ad\,\text{cov}(X,V)+bc\,\text{cov}(Y,W)+bd\,\text{cov}(Y,V)$$
In the case of log-returns, imagine that you have 2 assets having respectively log-returns $X_t$ and $Y_t$. Assume that for each period $t$, $X_t$ and $Y_t$ can be correlated, but also that $X_{t_1}$ and $Y_{t_1}$ are not correlated with $X_{t_2}$ and $Y_{t_2}$, $\forall t_1 \neq t_2$.
With 2 observations, you then have: \begin{split} a&=b=c=d=1\\ X&\stackrel{\text{def}}{=}X_1\\ Y&\stackrel{\text{def}}{=}X_2\\ W&\stackrel{\text{def}}{=}Y_1\\ V&\stackrel{\text{def}}{=}Y_2 \end{split}
So, due to the absence of correlation of $X_t$ and $Y_t$ at different times, you have:
\begin{split} \text{cov}\left(X_1+X_2,Y_1+Y_2\right)&=\text{cov}\left(X_1,Y_1\right)+\text{cov}\left(X_2,Y_2\right) &=2\,\text{cov}\left(X_t,Y_t\right) \end{split}
and in general:
$$\text{cov}\left(\sum_{t=1}^{n}X_t,\sum_{t=1}^{n}Y_t\right)=n\,\text{cov}\left(X_t,Y_t\right)$$
This can be generalised for any number of periods and assets $a$ with log-returns $X^a_t$ as long as:
So with $n$ periods per year and with the assumptions listed above, the covariance of the log-returns of each pair of assets can simply be multiplied by the annual frequency of observations $n$, as your post suggests.
Please note that these conditions are sufficient. Even if these assumptions are quite common, you do not need: