Problem
I want to apply the Kelly criterion to asset returns, so that I know how much to hold of each, ideally (and how much I should keep as a cash reserve).
As far as I understand the Kelly criterion, it's about maximizing the expected logarithmic returns - which computes as $$\frac{1}{n}\sum_{t=1}^{n} log(\frac{wealth_t}{wealth_{t-1}})$$
This correctly weighs losses, since summing in log-space is equivalent to multiplying in regular-space: even just one complete loss bankrupts my portfolio with no chance of recovery (it has a log of $-\infty$). Thanks to Matthew Gunn for explaining.
Research
In many "tricks" I've found online, people fit distributions to the returns, or find a neat formula.
What I dislike is there's some assumption of normality, or appeal to the law of large numbers - but I am skeptical they hold. For example, this answer and this page mention the variance - but variance can't capture fat tails.
Taleb shows that a fat-tailed distribution finds it much harder to converge to a mean, so the "large numbers" need to be much larger.
Another problem is the multivariate scenario: n-dimensional distributions are a headache to get right. Many mention covariance, but I have the same objection as for variance: it does not apply for non-normal distributions.
My question
To get to the point: Is it a good idea to side-step fitting any distribution and optimize directly on the data?
For example, say I compare stocks and bonds. Stocks have a high return, but also high risk, while bonds have a low return and low risk.
I'd get the two series, compute their log-returns, and find a linear combination with a maximum average log-return.
The coefficients of the linear combination will be the amount I invest in each.
Perhaps I divide the result by 2, to get half-Kelly, because past performance is no guarantee of future results.
But is skipping any distribution modelling a good idea?
I am inclined to believe it is, at least in the case when the data includes several instances of crashes. But I have a hunch I might be missing something, maybe related to ergodicity. Can you invalidate my belief?
Results
In case anyone is curious, I did it, and it seems very strange:
- when using monthly returns, the algorithm likes crazy leverage, like 3x stocks and 6.67x bonds.
- when using yearly rolling returns, it only goes 1.7x stocks and 2.34x bonds.
- 5-year returns make it go 2x stocks and .16x bonds.
- 10-year returns, both go up again to 2.45x and bonds go down to .263x.
I guess I don't even know what to ask. What is this? Serial correlation?
In any case, I suspect tail risk is not captured properly, so I can't recommend my method as it is. It doesn't seem to even converge.