This means that when q > 0 and the market maker has a long position, the reservation price decreases. So there is a greater chance that the market maker sells inventory, because he will place asks at a lower price. That seems quite logical.
However, when we get to close to the terminal price T, that factor of the equation tends to zero. What seems confusing to me is that if q > 0 when we are approaching the terminal time, asks will be higher and not lower as mentioned before. When the market maker is approaching terminal time he intends to reduce inventory risk, thus he has to sell his long position right?
I'm sure there is something I am missing here. But I am not understanding correctly what the formula intends to describe as the market maker behavior approaching to the terminal time.