I couldn't help but notice that in all stochastic volatility models articles I consulted, whenever Ito lema is applied with a process of the sort $$\frac{d S_t}{S_t} = \sigma_t d W_t $$ With $(\sigma_t)$ being a stochastic process.
It's considered that $$d<S_t> = S_t^2 \sigma_t^2 dt$$ Is this justified? Given that $\sigma_t$ is stochastic?
You can find such statment for instance in the original Heston's article (page 14 of the pdf document). https://citeseerx.ist.psu.edu/viewdoc/download?doi=10.1.1.139.3204&rep=rep1&type=pdf
Thank you