I do not understand why mean levels of the state variables under the risk-neutral measure, $\theta^{\mathbb{Q}}$, in Arbitrage-free Nelson-Siegel is set to zero. It should follow from the following relationship:
The relationship between the factor dynamics under the real-world probability measure $\mathbb{P}$ and the risk-neutral measure $\mathbb{Q}$ is given by \begin{equation} \label{eq11} dW_{t}^{\mathbb{Q}}=dW_{t}^{\mathbb{P}}+\Gamma_{t}dt \end{equation} where $\Gamma_{t}$ represents the risk premium.
Christensen et al. [$2011$] article here want to preserve affine dynamics under the both, risk-neutral measure and the real-world probability measure, thus the risk premium parameter must be an affine function of factors: \begin{equation} \label{eq12} \Gamma_{t}=\begin{pmatrix} \gamma_{1}^{0}\\ \gamma_{2}^{0}\\ \gamma_{3}^{0} \end{pmatrix}+\begin{pmatrix} \gamma_{1,1}^{1} & \gamma_{1,2}^{1} & \gamma_{1,3}^{1} \\ \gamma_{2,1}^{1} & \gamma_{2,2}^{1} & \gamma_{2,3}^{1}\\ \gamma_{3,1}^{1} & \gamma_{3,2}^{1} & \gamma_{3,3}^{1} \end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix} X_{t}^{1}\\ X_{t}^{2}\\ X_{t}^{3} \end{pmatrix} \end{equation}
Any help?