I have recently struggled in interviews, for two quantitative trading positions, by producing weak answers to effectively the same (fairly basic) question. I would like to understand, from a quant perspective, what I am missing about multicollinearity.
The question assumes you have a large portfolio of assets (say n=1000 stocks). As I recall, you prepare a covariance matrix (presumably of the price returns). The implication is that many of these returns are correlated. The question basically is, 'what is the problem with this, and how do you solve it?'.
Let $X\in \mathbb{R}^{m\times n}$ represent the matrix formed by concatenating vectors of each stock's returns observed over $m$ timesteps.
- My answer to 'What is the problem?':
If the returns are correlated, then there is some 'redundancy' in the matrix $X$ (in the extreme case, where a series of returns is identical to another, the matrix is underdetermined). I think that the implication is X is our matrix of features, and we are dealing with a linear regression model. Hence we are worried about the impact of inverting matrix $X^\top X$. If we have perfect multicollinearity, then this cannot be inverted; if we just have some multicollinearity, we will fit poorly, giving large errors/instability in our estimates for $\beta$.
- My answer to 'How do you solve it?':
Regularisation; the model has 'too many' features, and we should prioritise the more informative ones. L1 regularisation, in particular, allows for us to penalise solutions with many features and simplify the model (whilst retaining interpretability), so we could use a LASSO regression instead. L2 regularisation could also be used, but this doesn't, in general, reduce the number of features.
Unfortunately, I don't think these answers are textbook, so I would love some clarifications:
- Is this even a question about model fitting? Or is it really about variance-covariance matrices, portfolio risk, and/or CAPM-style financial management?
- An interviewer suggested using PCA instead of regularisation. I am not sure why that would be superior, since the principal components do not map to the original stocks you had in your portfolio)
- Does this apply to other models, which don't involve inverting $X^\top X$, or just linear regression?