Given a Markovian stochastic volatility model with an asset $S$ and a variance process $V$ given by $$ dS_t = \mu_t S_tdt + \sqrt{V_t}S_tdW_t, \\ dV_t = \alpha(S_t,V_t,t)dt + \eta \beta(S_t,V_t,t)\sqrt{V_t}dZ_t, \\ dW_tdZ_t = \rho dt, $$ where $W$ and $Z$ are correlated Brownian motions. Now suppose that we have two traded assets $F$ and $G$, which can be written as $F_t = f(t,S_t,V_t)$ and $G_t = g(t,S_t,V_t)$, where $f$ and $g$ are deterministic smooth functions. Additionally I can assume that $S,F,G$ are martingales.
Question: How can the claim $F_T$ be replicated by trading in the options $S$ and $G$?
My idea was the following: Define a portfolio $\Pi = F - \phi S - \psi G$. Using the self financing property and Ito's formula, I can calculate $d\Pi$ and choose $\phi$ and $\psi$ such that the portfolio is instantaneously risk free, i.e. I choose $$ \phi = F_S - G_S \frac{F_V}{G_V}, \\ \psi = \frac{F_V}{G_V}. $$ This leaves me with $d\Pi = (...)dt$. However I am not sure how to go on from here and how this does help me. Additionally, I am unsure on where I can/should use that the processes are martingales.
Was my initial Ansatz with the portfolio $\Pi$ correct? If yes, how should I proceed from here? If no, what would be the right way to start?
Thanks in advance!