The writer is selling a european call option with $K=S_{0}$, $S=S_{0}$ ($payoff_{T} = (S_{T} -k)_{+}$), time to maturity $T$, with a twist:
With some probability, $Pr(l) \geq 0,$ $\forall t,$ $0 < t < T$ the option holder may 'exercise' some portion of the option $n$, $ 0 < n <= 1$ and receive $n \cdot BS(S,T-t, \sigma , k, r)$, where $BS(S,T-t, \sigma , k, r)$ is the B-S market value of a euro call option at the time of exercise.
The question I'm wrangling with is this, I believe (and please correct me if I am wrong) is that the Risk-Neutral price of the above option is $BS(S_{0},T, \sigma , k, r)$ regardless of $l$ because a replicating portfolio would be to purchase an option and liquidate $n$ of that option every time the holder exercised.
However, does this remain true when $\sigma_{T-t,Strike-Ratio}$ has a term structure and volatility smile?
My intuition says yes, because the replicating call portfolio still holds but I wanted to confirm.
Thanks!