In an arbitrage-free single-period CRR model, the following options on a share are offered:
[They are all European]
(i) Call option at strike price $100$, price: $C_{0,1}=7.44$
(ii) Call option at strike price $110$, price: $C_{0,1}=3.72$
(iii) Put option at strike price $100$, price: $P_{0,1}=23.59$
(iv) Put option at strike price $110$, price: $P_{0,1}=29.49$
Show that given this information the model is fully specified.
Using the Put-Call parity I got $7.44-23.59=S_0-100/(1+r)$ and $3.72-29.49=S_0-110/(1+r)$ which yields $S_0\approx 80$ and $r\approx 0.04$.
How can I get $u,d$?