In Sheldon Natenberg's book "Option Volatiliy & Pricing (2nd)", he mentioned that (on page 65), only trading days (roughly 252 in a year) are counted when computing vol time and all calendar days (roughly 365 in a year) are used when computing interest rate (hence discount factor, borrow, forward, and etc.)
My question is: When we use the Black-Scholes formula, do we use two time-to-maturity numbers, one for vol and the other for others?
For example, for a one-year (365 calendar days and 252 trading days) expiry call, do we use the following?
\begin{align} C = e^{-r\times (365/365)}\left[Se^{r\times365/365}N(d_1) - KN(d_2)\right] \end{align} where \begin{align} d_{1,2} = \frac{\log \frac{S}{K} \pm \frac12\sigma^2 \times (252/252)}{\sigma\sqrt{(252/252)}} \end{align} and for the greeks, we change the two time-to-expiry numbers accordingly. For example, with one business day passing by, the price of the call becomes: \begin{align} C^* = e^{-r\times (364/365)}\left[Se^{r\times364/365}N(d_1) - KN(d_2)\right] \end{align} where \begin{align} d_{1,2}^* = \frac{\log \frac{S}{K} \pm \frac12\sigma^2 \times (251/252)}{\sigma\sqrt{(251/252)}} \end{align} But with two weekend days passing by, the price of the call is instead: \begin{align} C^{**} = e^{-r\times (363/365)}\left[Se^{r\times363/365}N(d_1) - KN(d_2)\right] \end{align} where \begin{align} d_{1,2}^{**} = \frac{\log \frac{S}{K} \pm \frac12\sigma^2 \times (252/252)}{\sigma\sqrt{(252/252)}} \end{align} because the underlier's price does not move during weekends.