In the Vanna-Volga approach to pricing first generation exotics, such as single barriers, as I understand it the pricing is as follows:
Let $K,S_t < B$. I'll choose the ATM IV $I_{ATM}$ as the reference volatility for the VV price. Then, $$ UIP(S_t,K,B) = UIP^{BS} (S_t,K,B, I_{ATM}) + p \times \text{Hedge cost} $$ where $UIP^{BS} (S_t,K,B, I_{ATM})$ is the UIP price in a Black-Scholes world with a flat volatility equal to $I_{ATM}$, and $p$ is the touch probability. If I were considering an Up and Out (UOP) then $p$ would be the no-touch probability, right?
So here is my question: the UIP price in a Black-Scholes world with flat vol $I_{ATM}$ is $$ UIP^{BS} (S_t,K,B, I_{ATM}) = \frac{K}{B} C^{BS}(S_t, B^2/K, I_{ATM}) $$
The hedge cost would be $$ \sum_{i=1}^3 x_i \left( C(S_t,K_i) - C^{BS}(S_t,K_i,I_{ATM}) \right) $$ where the $C(S_t,K_i)$ are the market prices of options (i.e. using the actual IVs of the strikes $K_i$), and $x_i$ are determined such that \begin{align} \frac{\partial}{\partial\sigma} UIP^{BS} (S_t,K,B, I_{ATM}) &= \sum_{i=1}^3 x_i \frac{\partial}{\partial\sigma}C^{BS}(S_t,K_i,I_{ATM}) \\ \frac{\partial^2}{\partial\sigma\partial\sigma} UIP^{BS} (S_t,K,B, I_{ATM}) &= \sum_{i=1}^3 x_i \frac{\partial^2}{\partial\sigma\partial\sigma}C^{BS}(S_t,K_i,I_{ATM}) \\ \frac{\partial^2}{\partial S_t\partial\sigma} UIP^{BS} (S_t,K,B, I_{ATM}) &= \sum_{i=1}^3 x_i \frac{\partial^2}{\partial S_t\partial\sigma}C^{BS}(S_t,K_i,I_{ATM}) \end{align}
Is my understanding, in particular regarding the touch probability, correct?