All throughout my MFE I was told that implied volatility for close to expiry ATM options is a reasonable estimate for current volatility and tracks realised vol pretty well. Then why does VIX measure 30-day expected volatility?
Is VIX not supposed to be measuring current vol, but the average vol throughout the month?
So is it correct to say: implied vol for the SPX options expiring in 3-4 days is currently sitting at ~6%, whilst the VIX is 13.5%. So currently vol is around 6%, but the average vol throughout the month might be around 13.5%?
Bonus: If SPX options are cash-settled and don't pay dividends, does that mean their dividend yield is 0% wrt the Black-Sholes formula, or do you have to use the SPY dividend yield.