I'm struggling a bit to understand how the Radon–Nikodym derivative is computed in pag.3 of this paper written by Mark Joshi titled "THE USE OF POWER NUMERAIRES IN OPTION PRICING". Given a process defined as $dS_t=\mu S_tdt + \sigma S_t dW_t$, the change of measure $\frac{\mathrm{d}\mathbb Q^1}{\mathrm d\mathbb Q^0}$ from bank account numeraire $(\alpha=0)$ to the stock measure $(\alpha=1)$ is clear:
\begin{align*} \frac{\mathrm{d}\mathbb Q^1}{\mathrm d\mathbb Q^0}=\frac{S_T}{S_0}\frac{B_0}{B_T}=\frac{S_T}{S_0}e^{-rT}=\frac{S_0e^{(r-\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2)T+\sigma W_T -rT}}{S_0}=e^{-\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2T+\sigma W_T} \end{align*}
I'm confused by the definition of the change of measure $\frac{\mathrm{d}\mathbb Q^\alpha}{\mathrm d\mathbb Q^0}$ from the risk neutral measure $(\alpha=0)$ to the $\alpha$-measure, given that $S^\alpha_T=S^\alpha_0e^{\alpha(r-\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2)T+\alpha \sigma W_T}$:
\begin{align*} \frac{\mathrm{d}\mathbb Q^\alpha}{\mathrm d\mathbb Q^0} = \frac{N_{T,T}^\alpha B_0}{N_{0,T}^\alpha B_T}=\frac{N_{T,T}^\alpha e^{-rT}}{N_{0,T}^\alpha}=\frac{S_{T}^\alpha e^{-rT}}{N_{0,T}^\alpha}=\color{red}{e^{-\frac{1}{2}\alpha^2\sigma^2T+\alpha\sigma W_T}}. \end{align*}