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This is Tuckman fixed income security textbook. The text here is trying to price a 990 six month call on a six month zero bond. When we replicate the portfolio, where is the F_.5 coming from?

My understanding is that the underlying is the F_1. Why we are adding F_.5 in the equation but not anything else?

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The underlying is indeed the F_1. But the F_0.5 is required to determine the forward yield. Ie at what yield the F_1 is expected to trade at after 6 months.

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