I am trying to statistically model the relationship between implied volatility of European ATM options (expiring in 1 month) and the realized volatility of the underlying.
I am interested in the question if the implied volatility overreacts to the changes in realized volatility and by how much on average.
My first intuition was to see if these timeseries (IV and RV) are cointegrated. However, I find that both these timeseries are stationary (ADF test) at 5% significance. Therefore, I am thinking to fit a simple linear model:
$$ IV_t = \alpha + \beta RV_t + \epsilon$$
$\alpha$ would be representative of cost of pricing the option such as hedging costs etc (I agree this is a dicey assumption).
$\beta > 1$ would measure the degree of overreaction to changes in RV.
$\epsilon$ are expected to be orthogonal.
$RV$ is the annualized standard deviation of 5-minute log returns (over all the 78 5-minute intervals in a 6.5-hour trading day.
$IV$ is the average implied volatility of ATM European options expiring the second Friday of the next month (maturity is somewhere between 28-31 days).
My question is:
- Are my intuitions pointing me to right direction?
- Is the model specification correct?
- Is there anything else I need to be careful about?