This is not homework. I am trying to calculate the implied interest rate of one currency (C2) using an FX swap and the interest rate of another currency (C1 - base). I have the following:
Spot: 7.7587 (C2 per unit C1)
Buy Notional (spot) C1: 12,888,757.14
Sell Notional (spot) C2: 100,000,000.00
Start date: 6-May-13
End date: 7-May-14
Buy Notional (forward) C2: 100,000,000.00
Sell Notional (forward) C1: 12,905,390,58
Forward FX rate: 7.7487
I have a borrowing in C1 for 0.9650% for the year.
Using interest rate parity:
$$ F_0 = S_0 \frac{1+r_{C2}}{1+r_{C1}} $$
I solve for $ r_{C2} = 0.8349\%$.
However, I am told that the right answer is $0.8486\%$.
Which should be the implied interest rate in currency C1. Am I crazy or missing something?
Do I need to consider FX basis?
EDIT
If I use ACT/360 for C1 and ACT/365 for C2 with $ACT=365$ I get actually pretty close $(0.8483\%)$. Is that it? Is the difference caused by daycount?
C1 is USD
C2 is HKD
(I believe these are the correct day-count convention based on a paper by UBS). Not sure where to find the "official" declaration.