This was an exam question at Cambridge University.
Let $S_t = S_0 \exp \left(\sigma W_t + (r-\dfrac{1}{2}\sigma^2) \right)$ and a bank account returns a continuously-compounded rate of interest $r$. Consider the derivative which pays
$Y = (\exp(T^{-1}\int^T_0\log(S_u)\text{d}u) - K)^+$ at time T.
What is the time-0 price for this derivative, and show it is less than the price of a European call.
The price of this, if I am not wrong, is
$S_0\exp(-\dfrac{1}{2}(r+\sigma^2/6)T) N(d_2) - Ke^{-rT}F(-d_1)$
where $d_1 = \log(K/S_0-1/2(r-\sigma^2)T)/(\sigma\sqrt{T/3})$ and $d_2 = -d_1+\sigma\sqrt{T/3}$.
I don't see how this is less than the European call.