Search Results
Search type | Search syntax |
---|---|
Tags | [tag] |
Exact | "words here" |
Author |
user:1234 user:me (yours) |
Score |
score:3 (3+) score:0 (none) |
Answers |
answers:3 (3+) answers:0 (none) isaccepted:yes hasaccepted:no inquestion:1234 |
Views | views:250 |
Code | code:"if (foo != bar)" |
Sections |
title:apples body:"apples oranges" |
URL | url:"*.example.com" |
Saves | in:saves |
Status |
closed:yes duplicate:no migrated:no wiki:no |
Types |
is:question is:answer |
Exclude |
-[tag] -apples |
For more details on advanced search visit our help page |
A risk-neutral measure is a probability measure that yields an expected present value (discounted at the risk-free rate) which is equal to the current market price. The risk-neutral measure is also called an equivalent martingale measure.
5
votes
1
answer
3k
views
Why must a riskless portfolio earn the risk-free rate?
In Options, Futures and Other Derivatives when Hull introduces the risk-neutral approach to pricing European options in the one-step binomial model, he claims that
Riskless portfolio must, in the …
4
votes
1
answer
355
views
Do *all* non-dividend paying assets have the risk-free instantaneous return rate under the r...
For simplicity let's consider a 1D BS world. The only source of randomness comes from the Brownian motion dynamics $dB_t$. The risk-free rate is $r$ (one may assume it as constant for the time being). …
2
votes
2
answers
546
views
Why can only non-dividend paying assets serve as numeraire?
In Kerry Back, A Course in Derivative Securities, Sect. 1.4 (page 29), the author stated the FTAP in the following form (in boldface):
If there are no arbitrage opportunities,
then for each (non …
7
votes
1
answer
2k
views
How to determine the risk-neutral measure in a Heston model?
To clarify, I'm quite familiar with the risk-neutral pricing framework, and I know one can efficiently Monte-Carlo a Heston model via the non-central $\chi^2$ distribution approach. But so far we're o …