# Tag Info

6

The name initial margin is somewhat misleading as initial margin is dynamic i.e it is adjusted through time. So, as you say, on day zero, it can be computed as a 10 day VaR VaR(10, t0). But, on day one, the market conditions will have changed, or you may have paid a cashflow etc etc..... so your 10 day VaR will also change (i.e. VaR(10, t1) is not equal to ...

5

"Debt issuer default risk" and "counterparty risk" are very similar. From Risk magazine: Counterparty Risk The risk that a counterparty to a transaction or contract will default (fail to perform) on its obligation under the contract. Counterparty risk is not limited to credit risk (the risk that the counterparty cannot fulfill its contractual ...

4

To continue from uness' answer (edit: just seen the OP was very old, but will leave here anyway!) . The greeks will be every element of market risk to which the the CVA is sensitive. Writing in words for celerity: A CVA is a credit linked option on the underlying instrument. You are sensitive to the credit default- (specifically the swap obligation payment ...

4

CVA is a price. Just like any price, you compute its sensitivities (greeks) and then use financial products to bring them as close to zero as possible. It's not possible to derive a hedging strategy just by looking at the CVA figure, it's like asking what the hedging strategy of a product is if its price is USD 1M... You need the CVA greeks. The ...

4

I don’t think it is exactly correct to say that XVA only apply to derivatives. It is more correct to say they are more relevant to derivatives than cash products such as loans. The reason is that in cash products, the expected exposure is always known. If you have a $\$1m$loan, your exposure is always$\$1m$ and the credit risk will be incorporated in the ...

4

Assuming zero recovery, let $\mathcal{C}$ be a counterparty you are facing on a derivative deal with value $V(t)$ and maturity $T$ such that $V(t)\geq 0$, for example an option. Let $CDS_\mathcal{C}(t,T)$ be the value at $t$ of a unit-notional CDS on $\mathcal{C}$ with maturity $T$. Then with the portfolio $\pi(t)=V(t)CDS_\mathcal{C}(t,T)$, namely a CDS ...

3

Actually the problem is that the probability of default the second year is conditioned by the default the first year. So you have to multiply 4%*101.21*99%, because 1% of the times it has already defaulted the first year

3

The assets of the SPV constitute a single corporate loan. Therefore the probability of default and LGD of the bond can be estimated from the CDS market for that corporate. Now the SPV defaults if and only if the bond defaults, so you have the probability of the SPV defaulting. Next you need to compute your exposure in a default situation. What matters ...

3

This is an oft-debated topic among CVA/DVA professionals at banks. The key question, as pointed out by one of the comments, is whether a bank can derive some type of benefit from the increase in its own credit spread (and thereby make less of a CVA charge on the proposed transaction). The two sides to the argument are (a) on the one hand, surely by ...

3

As I see it, the term $\Pi_B(t, T)$ is the value of the derivatives already owned by the bank. So, it's not some price they need to pay but an asset on the balance sheet. This increase in asset value leads to a profit. Balance sheet Example Imagine the balance sheet of OTC Subsidiary with rating A: Assets | Liabilities -----------------...

3

You are right, there's not much difference. I think the reason people don't talk about it that way is due to accounting. Derivatives are marked to market (thus requiring an accurate estimate of future credit losses, thus CVA) , whereas loans are typically carried on the books at par value, until they become impaired due to non payment in which case a ...

3

For a very nice reference on this matter, I recommend Pykhtin and Zhu’s Guide to Modelling Counterparty Credit Exposure, a short paper that thoroughly defines these concepts. Expected Exposure $EE(t)$ (also known as Expected Positive Exposure) for a trade with value $V(t)$ is given by: $$EE(t)=\mathbb{E}[\max(0,V(t))]$$ It is effectively “what you could ...

2

The CVA charge in Basel iii reporting increases the capital required for OTC derivatives trading. Apart from CVA, there are DVA and FVA that are important. The adjustments might be unitary reffered to as XVA, as the principle is the same.

2

A methodology for estimating rating/ region/ sector proxies for ACVA calculations can be found here: http://www.nomura.com/resources/europe/pdfs/cva-cross-section.pdf Please let me know if you need anything to be clarified (caveat: I am one of the authors). The methodology assigns a CDS mark to counterparties that either have no CDS marks, or their marks are ...

2

Your reference says "This method derives implied CDS spreads for unobservable issuers through the interpolation or extrapolation of observable CDS. It is a factor model that constructs CDS spread surface as a function of credit rating and maturity." So this is for issuers which do not have any CDS contracts priced (there are no CDS spreads to bootstrap). I'...

2

There are quite a few methods to calculate default probabilities from CDS data. Simply you start at the shortest tenor, assume constant hazard rate. Then for the next tenor, you assume the previous hazard rate is still valid till the previous tenor, and the hazard rate between the previous tenor and new tenor is calibrated so that CDS PV matches the market ...

2

The presence of a mandatory break in a swap contract should reduce the CVA charge. That's because the CVA calculation models the default probability* swap market value while the swap is alive, so the calculation stops at the break date. There is one caveat: if a bank has a history of "waiving" mandatory breaks (i.e. In practice they never get exercised ) ...

2

This only produces an approximation. As per Gregory (page 256) However, adding a spread to a contract such as a swap, the problem is non-linear since the spread itself will have an impact on the CVA. The correct value should be calculated recursively (since the spread is risky too) until the risky MTM of the contract is zero. He points to a ...

2

No need to overcomplexify things. The CVA gives you simply the amount that you expect to lose if and when your counterparty defaults, discounted to today. In your case, you are buying an option. So, you already paid a premium but still expect to receive the payoff at expiry. In a sense, your counterparty owes you the payoff and you can lose this amount in ...

2

If you have a portfolio of derivatives with a counterparty and this counterparty defaults before the trades mature, the net mark to market value of the portfolio will be calculated according to the master agreement and a close-out amount will be supposed to be paid by one party to the other. If this portfolio has a positive mark to market value (from your ...

2

I recommend the book The Basel II Risk Parameters. This book is primarily a collection of articles on the development, validation and stress testing of the risk parameters. The good thing about this book is that it provides an overview of the methodologies used which should be easy to follow for an experienced credit risk professional. However, it does not ...

1

The approach is the same in discrete and continuous time. You have $$\text{CVA} = E\left[e^{-\int_0^{\tau} r_u du} \text{EAD}_{\tau} (1-R)\mathbf{1}_{\tau \leq T}\right]$$ where $\tau$ = stochastic time of default ($+\infty$ if the counterparty never defaults) $T$ = deal maturity $\text{EAD}_t$ = exposure at default = exposure (stochastic) to the ...

1

You might want to refer to this blog page. I didn't know the swap method but what is described at this link seems a good approximation. Of course you will need quite a lot of inputs. The problem of the libor that has already fixed is treated too. https://alluve.wordpress.com/2010/04/10/cva-calculation-example/

1

Collateral imperfections: the CVA cover the expected exposure in the event that the counterparty defaults. When the trade is collateralized and subject to variation margin. This exposure will come only from the imperfection of the collateral. Because posting and receiving collateral actually has a cost, usually the collateral agreement will be a threshold ...

1

Unlike VM which covers MtMs , IM covers close-out risk (2 weeks portfolio volatility)., it is dynamic , and required for major OTC users (see BCBS IOSCO 2015 ) i.e top up segregated account if need be so to cover portfolio volatility risk. When the IM profile is available MVA can be calculated, this could be the cost of borrowing cash/securities so to post ...

1

This presentation from Citi might help a bit regarding CVA hedging. If you scroll through you will find some examples which show their hedge structures (sic. suggestions). https://www.boj.or.jp/announcements/release_2010/data/fsc1006a5.pdf Me

1

What GARP considered for the question is a first-to-default CVA, meaning that the bank looks at what it expects to lose if its counterparty defaults before it does. In this case the formula would be: $\mathrm{CVA}=\left(Spread_{Counterparty} - Spread_{Bank} \right) \times EE$ In a sense, the bank "does not care" about what happens after it defaults. So, all ...

1

The marginal CVA depends on every other trade in the netting set. This implies that adding a trade to the portfolio changes the marginal CVA of all the other existing trades in the portfolio. Why is that problem? Imagine you only charge the client for the marginal CVA of each new trade. Since adding a new trade changes the CVA allocated to previously ...

1

I believe netting sets are usually provided as inputs to the algorithm in most-cases. If you were to kind of "guess" netting sets given different trades (in general) data, you could start by grouping them by counterparty. I'm not a legal specialist but my understanding is that counterparty here is to be understood as "legal entity" or something like that, ...

1

would it affect CVA? that would depend on what happens on breaking. Normally if we break a swap, the swap is over and there are no more cash-flows. We would only break if the NPV is negative and in that case we have no credit exposure so no effect. However, CVA is generally computed on a book basis and that is more complicated. Ultimately, you have to ...

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