11

It comes down to the definition of LIBOR: London Interbank Offer Rate -> Every business day, a panel of large banks are asked by the BBA[*] (British Bankers Association) at what rate they would lend cash (unsecured) in a certain currency to another bank of that panel for a certain maturity, and that for a range of currencies and maturities. e.g. Currency: ...


8

There are two parts to this question: 1) Is OIS a good risk-free proxy? and 2) Why is OIS used to discount cash flows of derivatives. First, overnight indexed swaps, in the US, are indexed to the Fed funds effective rate, which in turn tracks the Fed funds target rate. The Fed Fund target rate is directly set by the Federal Reserve, while the Fed Funds ...


8

I reproduce the Ametrano-Bianchetti paper on dual-curve bootstrapping in Python with QuantLib in a chapter of the QuantLib Python Cookbook. (Note: I'm not sure what the etiquette is about plugging one's own for-sale book. Moderators, please let me know if that's out of line.) That includes both OIS and LIBOR bootstrapping with different tenors, and it's ...


6

The problem here is that your market is not arbitrage-free: JPY OIS = 10% per day, flat USD OIS = 0% per day, flat USDJPY spot = 100 USDJPY Forward for tomorrow = 100 A quick sense check is that, if you have an interest rate differential, you cannot have the FX forward equal to the spot FX. I would take advantage of the arbitrage as follows: I ...


6

It is incorrect to use 1m euribor or O/N euribor in a 6m Euribor forward curve. You should only use instruments based on 6M euribor, such as 1x7 FRA, 6x12 FRA or swaps v 6m Euribor, as you have done in your second example. The actual 6m euribor fixing itself can be thought of as a 0x6 FRA out of spot. Before the financial crisis basis between different ...


5

Collateral posted in currency XYZ is remunerated at $\text{OIS}_{\text{XYZ}}$, which translates, using the XYZUSD basis, into a synthetic USD rate $\text{OIS}_{\text{USD}}^{\text{XYZ}} = \text{OIS}_{\text{USD}} + \text{basis}_{\text{XYZUSD}}$. If you post collateral you want to choose the currency XYZ that has the highest equivalent synthetic USD rate, and ...


5

If you assume that you do not have any market risk (a strange assumption, but it would hold for example if you are fully hedged), then a (correctly) collaterlized derivative does not have any net future cash flow. Clearly: if the derivative contract has a cash flow of -X, its value will go down by X and the collateral account will have a cash flow of +X (the ...


4

An OIS, or Overnight Index Swap, is an interest rate swap whose floating leg payments are calculated as a geometric average of the daily fixings of some underlying O/N or T/N index (these indices are generally volume-weighted averages of reported daily transactions). The annualized floating leg rate is defined as $$ c_T^{float} = \frac{\prod^{s+T}_{t=s}{(1+...


4

"CSA discounting" does not give you a lot of information: it just means the collateralisation of the trade follows the rules agreed upon between both parties in the Credit Support Annex. But you don't know what those rules are so you would not necessarily be discounting your transaction's cashflows at OIS. I have heard people use "CSA discounting" ...


4

The ois curves were (and still are) primarily build from adding together (a) interest rate swap rates and (b) Fed Funds/Libor basis swaps. For example, if 10yr swaps are 2.0%, and 10yr fF/libor is -35bp, the 10yr ois is 1.65%. The basis swaps have been liquid for decades, so this calculation has always been possible. However, participants didn't ...


3

I believe that Eonia can still be used for discounting derivatives after 2020. Article: https://www.risk.net/derivatives/5848051/esma-eonia-can-be-used-in-csas-after-2020 If it becomes illiquid, counterparties can repaper csa's to Ester. That will cause an economic effect if there is a non zero Eonia/Ester basis.


3

There are many resources describing how to build a trinomial tree for the Hull & White model (for instance http://www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/downloadablepublications/TreeBuilding.pdf), and finite differences schemes are popular as well. These apply to the single curve case. To deal with the multi curve case while keeping everything 1 factor, the ...


3

Which currency are you looking at ? Say that your 1y swap would have yearly fixed payments vs 3M floating payments. Your 1.5y swap would probably have: a fixed payment 6m after effective date and another fixed payment 18m after effective date regular quarterly floating payments Your curve was built with 1y and 2y swaps, nothing in the middle ? Then yes, ...


3

First of all, it seems that you are solely concerned about the Funding Valuation Adjustment (FVA) here, and not CVA; Sovereigns have credit risk which should also be valued here given they would not be posting any collateral as mitigant when the market moves in your favour. But let's focus on FVA: It is important to think about FVA (and all other VAs also) ...


3

you have a missing element in your data - you need to take into account xccy basis. when you do so, then you would get the same valuation in both methods. the key is to remember that since your payoff of 100JPY is collateralised in usd, it effectively needs to be thought of as if your payoff is cash settled in usd.


3

To trade a swap counterparties must have an ISDA Master Agreement drawn up and signed between themselves. If collateral is to be exchanged that agreement will also contain a section called a CSA: a Credit Support Annex. That documentation defines the types of collateral available to post as the liability holder: and the banks choice of discount curve will ...


3

A plethora of instruments, a menagerie of curves Different instruments are traded in different ways, and relate to a collection of curves. Floating rate instruments depend on some index in order to calculate the cashflows, and so trading instruments which depend on different indices is implicitly trading the expectations of those indices in the future. Fed ...


3

For both cleared and OTC swaps you need to post margin. If you are delivering cash then you will receive OIS in generally in either case. As OTC trades are bespoke you might have a different agreement with your particular counterparty - but that would be unusual. The main advantage of a central clearer is the recycling of margin. If I receive 5y from ...


2

To expand on Marcino's correct appraisal of the matter: arbitrage was introduced with the 4 pieces of market data. i.e. JPY OIS = 10% per day, flat USD OIS = 0% per day, flat USDJPY spot = 100 USDJPY Forward for tomorrow = 100 are not consistent with no-arbitrage. Discounting is driven by how the trade is funded. e.g. if there is a collateral agreement ...


2

Predictability - we all know what a bootstrapped curve will do when we shift a value. A minimisation, however, could jump to a new minimum at any moment. They also have unpredictable performance; sometimes a minimisation is fast, sometimes slow. Robustness - these codes have been around forever, and they work. New codes, not so much. Defendability - why is ...


2

OIS discounting is a subset of CSA discounting... technically they are not the same thing. CSA actually stands for Credit Support Annex, which is an Annex to your ISDA agreement with your trading counterpart that governs how your derivative trade is collaterallized (or not). Without the CSA agreement, the trade will get priced at the highest level of ...


2

If you're lucky enough that the payment schedules (start/end dates, frequency, day count, business day adjustment etc.) are the same between the fixed leg of the interest rate swap and the "spread" leg of the basis swap, then you can simply use: OIS rate (%) = IRS Rate (%) - 0.01 * (basis spread (bps)) Otherwise, to do it accurately, you'll need to do a ...


2

As an example: 6 month libor is typically higher than 3 month libor because of the extra credit risk in lending to banks for an additional 3 months. Derivatives on 6 month libor have to take this into account. For example, a 5yr basis swap exists where 6 month libor can be swapped for 3 month libor plus a spread. Credit modeling techniques would need to ...


2

An uncollateralized swap transaction should be valued at its own funding rate, which in practice means the bank unsecured funding rate, for instance approximated as 3M Libor. Alternatively use the OIS curve for the base valuation and mark the difference between 3M Libor discounting and OIS discounting as FVA.


1

For example a Caplet with Expiry of 3year with tenor = 0.5 has to be priced (following the analytical formula) with the LIBOR rate L(0,2.5,3). Am I getting it right ? Thats right. The caplet hast a tenor of half a year and expires in 3 more years, therefore it starts at T =2.5 and ends at T = 3. (Which in this case is the forward rate)


1

Suppose you wanted to value a 5Y EUR IRS with a USD cash collateralised curve this is the broad process: Get the 5Y EUR 3M / OIS basis, say this is 10bps: This establishes the discounting basis in the local (EUR) currency. Now get the 5Y EUR/USD Cross-currency basis, say this is EUR 3M-IBOR - 40bps: This establishes your link to dollars. Now get the 5Y ...


1

Collateralised means that when the IRS is negatively valued (i.e. a liability) for one of the counterparties then they post collateral to the other respective counterparty (i.e. the asset holder) to protect them against default of the liability owner. Collateral comes in many forms. The 'gold standard' is cash remunerated at the OIS rate, but it could be ...


1

Suppose the currency is EUR. Taking liberty with conventions, to give you the picture, the floating leg of an OIS swap of maturity $n$ years ("$n$Y") pays every year the compounded OIS rate on all business days on the past year period whereas its fixed leg pays every year a fixed rate $K$. Now the given OIS swap rate quoted on the market is the $K$ such that ...


1

OIS is based on overnight Fed Funds, which as you say is an unsecured overnight rate between banks in the Federal funds market. This is not technically risk-free, although pretty close (what are the chances of Citibank defaulting by tomorrow?). The OIS swap market thus provides an almost-risk-free rate for any desired term. For example, the 5yr OIS swap ...


1

This is a "cheapest-to-deliver" option - in the absence of any restrictions, the rational investor would post whichever collateral class offers the best rate of return at each moment in time (of course, this could vary over the life of the trade). Thus, to price in the presence of this option, you need to model the optimal posting strategy. You mentioned ...


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