# Tag Info

32

Many of them are on my website at emanuelderman.com. Others I probably have anyway. Feel free to email me

29

The volatiltiy surface is just a representation of European option prices as a function of strike and maturity in a different "unit" - namely implied volatility (while the term implied volatility has to be made precise by the model used to convert prices (quotes) into implied volatilities - for example: we may consider log-normal vols and normal vols). ...

25

Let $t_0, t_1, \ldots, t_n$ be observation dates, where $0=t_0 < \cdots < t_n = T$, and $\{S_t \mid t \geq 0\}$ be the equity price process without dividend payments. Then the realized variance is defined by \begin{align*} \frac{252}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n \ln^2 \frac{S_{t_i}}{S_{t_{i-1}}}. \end{align*} Note that, for sufficiently small $x$, \begin{align*} \...

21

It seems that your question refers to the microstructure noise defined in papers about intraday volatility estimates. Originally, it comes from the bid-ask bounce, i.e. the fact that even if the volatility is zero, you have buyers and sellers at this price and consequently you observe prices at Bid or Ask prices, and not at mid-price. Because of that, if ...

19

The main issue measuring intraday volatility is called "signature plot": when you zoom in, the volatility measure (i.e. empirical quadratic variations) explode. Similarly you have the "Epps effect" for correlations: when you zoom in, the correlations collapse (it is at least a mechanical effect). For the volatility a lot of models can correct this: - first ...

17

The term has a different meaning to different people. to econometricians, microstructure noise is a disturbance that makes high frequency estimates of some parameters (e.g. realized volatility) very unstable. Generally this strand of the literature professes agnosticism as to the its origin; to market microstructure researchers, microstructure noise is a ...

17

Some cynical but functional definitions: It's what you can't model if you're not using tick by tick data It's what proper quant pricing theory doesn't know how to model yet It's information (order book behavior) that reflects momentary fluctuations in the supply/demand of a given contract, rather than its underlying value (eg an arbitrage free price) The ...

16

Volatility is mean reverting because you can prove by contradiction that it cannot be otherwise. You have an intuitive understanding of why, but you need something closer to a proof. Assume volatility is not mean reverting. At time t, the effect of the random component of the volatility on its level will be $\sigma \cdot \sqrt{t}$ For an arbitrarily ...

16

The key to this is to think about the enterprise value of a business separately from how it is financed. For simplicity sake, consider a business that comprises a sole gold bar (no workers, no extraction costs, etc). The value of the business is clearly just the value of the gold bar. If it were a listed company, with no debt, then the equity ...

16

You may want to first broadly categorize volatility models before comparing between them within each class, it does not make sense to compare standard deviation models with an implied vol model. I would broadly classify as follows: Historical realized volatility: Those include standard deviation (sum of squared deviations), realized range volatility ...

16

There is no "plain Black Scholes implied surface" because implied volatilities come from options market prices (calls and put). If you had a whole continuum of call prices $C : \mathbb{R}_+ \times \mathbb{R}_+ \to \mathbb{R}_+$, $(T,K) \mapsto C(T,K)$ you would get a implied volatility function $\sigma_I : \mathbb{R}_+ \times \mathbb{R}_+ \to \mathbb{R}_+$ ...

15

Great question! I think the most useful starting point is Stock Return Characteristics, Skew Laws, and the Differential Pricing of Individual Equity Options by Bakshi, Kapadia and Madan (2003). Their paper proposes a definition of model-free implied skewness (they originally called it risk-neutral skewness, but MFIS is more accurate), which they prove will ...

15

Setting aside, that it's not pure riskless arbitrage, but rather statistical arbitrage: You can extract the profit by performing continuous delta hedging. If you constantly adjust your hedge position you gain/lose money by delta hedging. Being long option (gamma long), you sell at higher prices and buy at lower ones. Over the course of time you realize ...

14

The expression you have is fine. But more generally, for the intraday volatility, I don't think there "the correct definition". More like, whatever works in the given context. I found the following notes by Almgren pretty useful: http://cims.nyu.edu/~almgren/timeseries/notes7.pdf

14

I do not have the time right now to write up a summary concise enough but at the same time trying to really touch on all the points that have to be made to delineate the above. Instead I point you to couple papers that are concise enough to skim over in a matter of minutes in order to understand the differences. Jim Gatheral on Local vs Stoch Vols: http://...

13

There are rigorous econometric definitions, as has already been eluded to by others. For practical purposes, microstructure noise is a component of a price process that exhibits mean reversion on some (possibly time-varying) frequency. This reversion is particularly attractive to liquidity provisioners, who seek to profit from this noise component (along ...

13

The usual technique of computing the mean and standard deviation of returns happens to coincide with the maximum likelihood estimate when the data are regularly spaced. However, when the data are not regularly spaced, you can still do a maximum likelihood estimate. It's just more computationally intensive than before. That is to say, assume you have ...

12

Windham Capital Management is using hidden markov models for their Risk Regime Strategies. Mark Kritzman, who is also CEO, has published an article about the general outline of the strategy (with source code so you can replicate the results!): Regime Shifts: Implications for Dynamic Strategies (corrected August 2012) by M. Kritzman, S. Page, D. Turkington]...

12

Yes it is a better way. Just take a look to figure 3, from Buss and Vilkov (2012, RFS):

11

The price of a binary option, ignoring interest rates, is basically the same as the CDF $\phi(S)$ (or $1-\phi(S)$ ) of the terminal probability distribution. Generally that terminal distribution will be lognormal from the Black-Scholes model, or close to it. Option price is $$C = e^{-rT} \int_K^\infty \psi(S_T) dS_T$$ for calls and $$P = e^{-rT} \... 11 The way market makers mark their volatility curves is by using models which 'fill in the gaps', i.e. they will make a price for a given option even if they do not believe this option is going to get a lot of volume. They are still willing to go long/short because they have a strategy to hedge their overall position (i.e. by managing their greeks and expiries)... 11 You kind of answered the question yourself. Precisely because different market participants use different inputs to their pricing models, it is much easier to quote one single input (implied vols) than the output of 5 different inputs (BS option price). What is important is that you clearly differentiate between quoting and agreeing on the trade vs. the ... 11 I had read some of them; actually, it does not exist an on-line library that collected them (or, better, it existed here, but it seems the website does not work anymore). I reported here below some of them that you did not find: More Than You Ever Wanted To Know* About Volatility Swaps Model Risk The Volatility Smile And Its implied Tree Enhanced Numerical ... 11 Using months of proprietary data that labels participants by their participant ID, it has been found that during periods of significant volatility, the composition of HFT participants in the book remains mostly constant as a fraction of the total BBO composition. What really changes, it was found, was that the fraction of low-frequency traders aggressing on ... 11 Let's assume T=1 and let S be a geometric gaussian process with zero drift, i.e. \ln(S_1/S_0) is normally distributed with mean -1/2\times\mathrm{VEV}^2 and volatility VEV. Then$$\ln(\mathrm{VaR}/S_0) = -1/2\mathrm{VEV}^2 - \mathrm{VEV} \times 1.96$$with the VAR at 0.975 quantile. This is a quadratic equation in VEV, with solutions$$\mathrm{VEV}...

11

I didn't quite understand your objection. Most theories of market making are derived from a famous paper by Jack Treynor (The Economics of the Dealer Function). In the theory, there are initially no market makers, but there is a backstop seller (in this case someone willing to sell large amounts at 10.10) and a backstop buyer (a Warren Buffet ready to buy ...

11

Along with Gatheral's book, I'd recommend reading Lorenzo Bergomi's "Stochastic Volatility Modelling". The first 2 chapters are available for download on his website. That being said, let me try to give you the basic picture. Below we assume that the equity forward curve $F(0,t)=\Bbb{E}_0^\Bbb{Q}[S_t]$ is given for all $t$ smaller than some relevant ...

10

Volatility = Variance^1/2 = Standard Deviation

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Intraday seasonality is a major factor in comparing volatility at different times of day. Most time series display significantly higher volatility in the morning EST than mid-day. For US exchange-traded products, volatility picks up again just before 4:00 PM EST. This is known as the u-shaped volatility pattern for exchange-traded products. A proper ...

10

Scaling volatility as you do is often leading to inaccurate results which is over-estimating volatility especially when you scale daily volatility to even longer periods. Please see the following for more: http://economics.sas.upenn.edu/~fdiebold/papers/paper18/dsi.pdf The above paper also explains why scaling the way you did does not properly account for ...

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