From the formula of the delta of a call option, i.e. $N(d1)$, where $d_1 = \frac{\mathrm{ln}\frac{S(t)}{K} + (r + 0.5\sigma^2)(T-t)}{\sigma\sqrt{T-t}}$, the delta of an ATM spot call option is slightly bigger than 0.5. However, this is unintuitive to me... can anyone explain why?
Also, is there any way to interpret what does $d_1$, and $d_2$ represent where $d_1$ is shown above and $d_2 = d_1 - \sigma(T-t)$$d_2 = d_1 - \sigma\sqrt{T-t}$