I wonder if the $FTP\%$ term for loans in the following formula
$FTP\%=\text{Baserate} + \alpha *\text{liquiditypremium}_{1y}+(1-\alpha)*\text{liquiditypremium}_{6m}$.$$FTP\%=\text{BaseRate} + \alpha \,\text{LP}_{1y}+(1-\alpha) \,\text{LP}_{6m},$$
where $\text{LP}$ is a liquidity premium, is a measure for the bank's profit?