Timeline for Is the $NPV$ always a decreasing function in $r$
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
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| Apr 6, 2021 at 0:42 | answer | added | dm63 | timeline score: 2 | |
| Apr 5, 2021 at 1:03 | history | edited | Brethlosze | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Apr 4, 2021 at 2:12 | comment | added | Brethlosze | Sounds correct, though for some reason I have been unable to pass from the $NPV(IIR)=0$ case into a $NPV(r_m)>0$ case for $r_m<r_p$, $f_0<0$ and $f_n>0$ | |
| Apr 4, 2021 at 0:23 | comment | added | nbbo2 | No it is not always true. It depends on the number of changes of signs in the cash flows $f_i$ , doesn't it? Try cash flows with 2 changes of sign, positive, negative, positive again. There can be a hump in the NPV curve, and 2 rates where NPV = 0. | |
| Apr 4, 2021 at 0:06 | history | edited | Brethlosze | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Apr 3, 2021 at 23:37 | review | First posts | |||
| Apr 4, 2021 at 6:55 | |||||
| Apr 3, 2021 at 23:29 | history | asked | Brethlosze | CC BY-SA 4.0 |