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Jan 25, 2022 at 21:55 comment added dm63 No prob. It is a subtle thing for sure, can’t say I fully understand it.
S Jan 25, 2022 at 16:36 vote accept user9078057
Jan 25, 2022 at 14:56 answer added Maximilian Janisch timeline score: 4
Jan 25, 2022 at 14:19 comment added nbbo2 @dm63: agree. something not quite right with what I said, I need to rethink this stmt. Sorry.
Jan 25, 2022 at 13:35 comment added dm63 Hey @noob2, is your last sentence true ? If you change the probabilities on a tree without changing the possible outcomes for the stock, I think you do change the variance don’t you?
Jan 24, 2022 at 21:43 comment added shalop The simple mathematical answer is that if you change sigma then the law of the new process becomes singular with respect to the old one , i.e. the two processes are no longer equivalent. For a simple example you can consider drift zero and two different values of sigma and then a simple application of the law of the iterated logarithm will easily give you singularity of the two measures. A similar argument can be used in the general case of variable coefficients as well.
Jan 24, 2022 at 21:00 history tweeted twitter.com/StackQuant/status/1485719066241380359
Jan 24, 2022 at 20:41 history became hot network question
Jan 24, 2022 at 19:40 vote accept user9078057
S Jan 25, 2022 at 16:36
Jan 24, 2022 at 19:40 vote accept user9078057
Jan 24, 2022 at 19:40
Jan 24, 2022 at 15:30 comment added user34971 I suspect it has to do with equivalent probability measures. See also the accepted answer here: mathoverflow.net/questions/51090/…
Jan 24, 2022 at 15:16 history edited Jan Stuller CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 24, 2022 at 15:07 answer added Kurt G. timeline score: 5
Jan 24, 2022 at 12:40 history asked user9078057 CC BY-SA 4.0