I am new to pairs trading, and I have come up with an idea of how to allocate capital between the long and short leg of a pairs trade. I feel that there is a problem with it, and I want to figure out what I'm missing.
Let's say I have stock A and B, and I have a trading signal that it's time to enter a long/short pairs trade to trade the spread. Rather than doing a 50/50 split between the long/short, my idea is to allocate in proportion to the price variances.
For example, if stock A's price varies wildly and stock B's price doesn't, my logic is that I would want to put more of my capital in the position associated with stock A since it tends to move more and presumably, all else equal, its percent change would be larger than stock B's as the trade moves to convergence.
The immediate potential issue I see here is that this would make my overall trade NOT market neutral (as in, not "dollar neutral") since the bets are asymmetric. Does this mean that, on average, I would lose out? I can't help but feel like my initial logic is solid, though.
I would greatly appreciate any thoughts/perspective on this.