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Ah thx, I was really wondering about my lil math skills;). Anyway, your notebook and reference to this (very new for mw) method of images is greatly appreciated.
Just a very brief follow up question on the posted code. Within the function payAtHitRebate() there's a line computing the derivative of the perpetual binary with: value / spot * (beta != 0.0). Why actually multiply by 1 if beta unequal to 0 instead of just multiplying with beta?
I see but my crucial question is about how to compute the $\Delta_t$ for delta hedging. Browsing the web reveals many sources (such as the linked paper above) which use $\partial C/\partial S$ and claim self-financing. I may miss something here.
Thx for the link. To clarify, say, if I were to do a delta hedging simulation and therefore would have to compute the amount of the underlying to sell or buy on some discrete points using only $\Delta_t$ = $∂C∂S$, in general, I would obtain delta neutrality but not a self financed or locally risk free position? Wouldn't it be more correct then to use $\Delta_t^1$?
I think you are talking about real life. This doesn't just apply to commidities? However, my question was only about the analytical solution derived in a Black Scholes like setting, where we assume a flat vol. Maybe I'm missing something here?