If W$W$ and B$B$ are independent Brownian MotionsBrownian Motions (BM thereafter), then the average of W$W$ and B$B$ is X(t)=(1/2)(W(t)+B(t))$X_t=\frac{1}{2}(W_t+B_t)$.
Where do I begin to show that indeed it is still a BM, or believe it is.?
Also, if both are martingales, then X(t)$X_t$ must be a martingale also. How would I prove this considering it has the two random variables.?