I was reading on Factor Models in the book Quantitative Risk Management by McNeil, et al. In section 3.4.1 they introduce a linear factor model $$X = a + BF + \epsilon,$$ where $X \in R^d$, $F \in R^p$. They make the following assumptions:
- $\epsilon = (\epsilon_1, \ldots, \epsilon_d)'$ is a random vector of idiosyncratic terms, which are uncorrelated and have mean zero
- $\text{cov}(F, \epsilon) = 0$.
I understand that if there were an additional factor, say $B_{p+1} F_{p+1}$, then $\epsilon$ would no longer be uncorrelated. So perhaps the Assumption (1) makes sure that all the risk factors have been captured and the remaining randomness is truly idiosyncratic.
How do we understand Assumption (2)?