I'm self studying for an actuarial exam and I am curious about a property of the antithetic variate method for increasing the Monte Carlo price accuracy (i.e. For every random draw of $z$, also include a draw of $-z$ in the simulation).
Question:
Assume the Black-Scholes framework and consider a European call option with strike $K$ expiring in $T$ years on a non-dividend paying stock currently priced at $S_0$ with an annual volatility $\sigma$. Suppose that a Monte Carlo simulation is used to estimate the expected value at expiration of the option.
The simulation was performed using $n$ draws $u_1, u_2, ..., u_n$ from a uniform distribution to generate the stock price. Suppose that each of these draws generates a stock price at expiration which gives a zero payoff for the call option and therefore $E(\text{Payoff}) = \frac{1}{n} \sum_{i = 1}^n C(S_T^i, K, T) = 0$, where $S_T^i$ is the stock price at expiration for the $i$th draw.
Using the same uniform draws, and applying the antithetic variate method, will $E(\text{Payoff}) = \frac{1}{2n} \sum_{i = 1}^{2n} C(S_T^i, K, T) > 0$ necessarily?
My intuition says yes, but I don't have a way of convincing myself why.